1 response

  1. Crosbie Fitch
    September 10, 2011

    There’s still subliminal ‘copyright was created for authors’ bias going on here. Are you sure Gary North isn’t a fifth columnist?

    “in 1710 Parliament enacted the Statute of Anne to address the concerns of English booksellers and printers” yes, because “Prior to about 1700, there was no copyright protection”, in other words the ‘booksellers and printers’ (not least the crown) were upset because the licensing of the press act had come to an end and restored a free market in printing (much of which was seditious).

    “The 1710 act established the principles of authors’ ownership of copyright” Eh? No it didn’t. No such principle was established, as is admitted “in order to be paid for a work an author had to assign it to a bookseller or publisher”. The only principle established is that if a monopoly is granted per original work then it follows that the monopoly arises with the work, and thus logically is initially in the hands of the author of the work.

    “The statute prevented a monopoly on the part of the booksellers” Eh? What is the writer smoking? The statute was created precisely because the crown and monopolists were suffering monopoly withdrawal symptoms and wanted another fix.

    “The Licensing Act of 1662 confirmed that monopoly” and “The 1662 act lapsed in 1695” so obviously, there was no monopoly until “in 1710 Parliament enacted the Statute of Anne to address the concerns of English booksellers and printers” suffering through lack of the monopoly they had grown dependent upon. A 15 year period of a free market and then copyright was created to prevent a monopoly? The mind boggles.

    “and created a ‘public domain’ for literature by limiting terms of copyright” Eh? Talk about doublethink! The public domain is the natural state. You don’t need a monopoly to create it! It is only in these last few years that the cartel has persuaded us to adopt the definition of ‘public domain’ as those published works not ‘protected’ by copyright. So, only in that sense does a term limited monopoly (continuously extended) ‘create’ a set of works whose copyright has expired.

    Come on Stephan, criticising these articles should be far easier for you than me.

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