8 responses

  1. Charlie
    April 13, 2011

    How do you reconcile this statement, “Someone who previously invented the same thing and is using the idea in secret can actually be liable for infringing the patent granted to the second inventor.” With 35 USC 102 “A person shall be entitled to a patent unless – the invention was known OR USED by others in this country, … , before the invention thereof by the applicant for patent…”???

    Reply

    • Stephan Kinsella
      April 13, 2011

      Patent law is not intuitive. It is arcane. (No offense, libertarian IP proponents)

      “How do you reconcile this statement, “Someone who previously invented the same thing and is using the idea in secret can actually be liable for infringing the patent granted to the second inventor.” With 35 USC 102 “A person shall be entitled to a patent unless – the invention was known OR USED by others in this country, … , before the invention thereof by the applicant for patent…”???

      Because the “or used” part has been interpreted to mean a “public” use. If you sell a device that is novel, then the use is public. If you keep it secret and make something that is not itself novel–for example a novel, patentable process, or chemical-mixing nozzle–and use it to produce an ordinary chemical, but perhaps more efficiently (but not itself embodying the invention inherent in the technology that makes it), then selling that ordinary product does not make the underlying invention public.

      the law is confusing here but this is the way it is.

      See e.g. MPEP sec. 2132 http://www.uspto.gov/web/offices/pac/mpep/documents/2100_2132.htm#sect2132

      “Another’s Sale of a Product Made by a Secret Process Can Be a 35 U.S.C. 102(a) Public Use if the Process Can Be Determined by Examining the Product

      “The nonsecret use of a claimed process in the usual course of producing articles for commercial purposes is a public use.” But a secret use of the process coupled with the sale of the product does not result in a public use of the process unless the public could learn the claimed process by examining the product. Therefore, secret use of a process by another, even if the product is commercially sold, cannot result in a rejection under 35 U.S.C. 102(a) if an examination of the product would not reveal the process. Id.”

      Does this answer your question? Or does it at least persuade you that this area is arcane and specialized, and that those who dont really understand IP should not prance around arguing in favor for it? They don’t even understand the legal system they are naively defending.

      Reply

  2. Cap Man
    June 23, 2011

    Best mode is not eliminated under HR 1249. From the Congressional Research Service: “S. 23 and H.R. 1249 would continue to apply the best mode requirement to all patents. However, violation of the best mode requirement would no longer form the basis for a defense to a charge of patent infringement during enforcement litigation or post-grant review proceedings. Compliance with the best mode requirement would remain subject to review by USPTO examiners during the initial prosecution of a patent, although USPTO rejection of applications based upon failure to comply with the best mode requirement is reportedly a rare circumstance.” The ‘best mode’ defense is a procedural tactic used to begin discovery.

    Reply

  3. PeaceRequiresAnarchy
    September 2, 2012

    As I noted in “Reducing the Cost of IP Law,” under copyright law, someone who independently creates an original work similar to another author’s original work is not liable for copyright infringement, since the independent creation is not a reproduction of the other author’s work.

    What does the law say in the extremely unlikely scenario that someone independently creates an exact copy (or an extremely, extremely similar copy) of another author’s work rather than just a semi-similar copy.

    Reply

Leave a Reply

Back to top
mobile desktop